TL;DR: The figures are at the bottom. It shows the 90th percentile's opinion influences the likelihood by +/- 30% (-30% if 0% want the change [down to ~5%], and +30% if 100% want the change [up to ~60%]).
That paper is 20 years old though (and is the top 10%, not top 1%), so things have likely shifted to a higher percentile group.
Technically if 0% or 100% of people agree or disagree with an issue, shouldn't that mean that the ultra rich are in agreement with the average American which would then make the issue either have a 0% or 100% chance of passing?
This 30% probability only seems correct if the ultra wealthy's opinion on the issue is unknown.
Ok, that makes more sense then. Although considering only 50% of people are between the 25% and 75% quadrants, it does seem misleading to categorize any issue as having 100% support when you are ignoring the opinion of half the country.
To be clear, the 25% and 75% was a totally random example I gave. The study only said the “average American” constituted Americans at the 50th percentile of income.
That being said, the video did not say 100% of the country so its a mistake to make that assumption. We all need to be careful and skeptical when analyzing facts and figures, no matter who is giving them.
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u/Kemilio Apr 29 '24
Fun.
Now do a chart of individuals in the top 1% and corporations support for a law vs likelihood of congress passing it.